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A 32-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea. She experienced menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods until 8 months ago. She also reports occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination reveals a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative. TSH is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A. Bromocriptine
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oral contraceptive pill

Answer :

Final answer:

The woman's symptoms suggest a prolactinoma. The best treatment in this case is bromocriptine, which reduces prolactin release.

Explanation:

The patient's symptoms suggest a condition called prolactinoma, a benign tumor of the pituitary gland that produces elevated levels of prolactin leading to amenorrhoea and milky nipple discharge. The most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this condition is bromocriptine (choice a), a dopamine agonist. Bromocriptine reduces prolactin release thereby normalizing menstrual periods and increasing the possibility of pregnancy.

Learn more about prolactinoma here:

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